A 43 year old female client presents with pain in the right hand with episodes of pins and needles and occasional numbness. Upon inspection you notice a slight bluish discoloration of her arm and sensitivities of her right anterior neck. She claims to be under a lot of stress at work and she has been working overtime lately at a desk job typing 8-10 hours a day. What muscle group is directly contributing to this condition?
Correct Answer:
C
The brachial plexus is a nerve bundle that supplies the arm and hand. The root of the nerve innervates the scalene muscles where a hypertonicity can compress the nerve plexus as well as the subclavian artery and vein.
What best describes pain that has no known physical cause?
Correct Answer:
B
Psychosomatic pain is often caused by emotional distress and thus has no know physical cause. Psychosomatic pain can be a result from a broken heart after a break up, feelings of being inadequate or from any number of depressive thought patterns.
During an assessment, a massage therapist instructs their client to move a part of their body without assistance. This is known as ______.
Correct Answer:
A
When a client performs an unassisted movement of their body, they are displaying an active ROM. This is used to determine the client??s natural range of motion.
Choose the correct definition of the anatomical term ??condyle??.
Correct Answer:
D
The anatomical term ??condyle?? refers to a rounded articular process as in the medial or lateral condyles of the femur which articulate with the condyles of the tibia.
On which bone would you locate the infraglenoid tubercle?
Correct Answer:
D
The infraglenoid tubercle is the attachment site of the long head of the
triceps brachii and is located at the most superior aspect of the lateral border of the scapula.
